E
everythingmatters
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I suppose it depends on each case, but assuming someone has a class I malocclusion with a recessive face but not so hardcore and also everything is theoretically speaking without other factors at play such as relapse, stability, etc.
When performing a bimax with le fort I, the one that would be limiting big forward advances of both jaws, would be the upper jaw, right? Because if you move the upper jaw too far forward using lefor I, the face would begin to deform faster because you are NOT moving the whole maxilla (lefort I).
Instead, the lower jaw could be made bigger advances because in this case if you are moving the whole jaw (at least from the front view). Is this correct?
In other words, in theory, if a Le fort II (or even III) instead Le Fort I were performed, could bigger advances be made in the upper jaw (and therefore the lower jaw) without deforming the face?
Please don't shitpost, otherwise you will be blocked and reported.
Could you help with this, please?
@Golden Glass
@Sergio-OMS
When performing a bimax with le fort I, the one that would be limiting big forward advances of both jaws, would be the upper jaw, right? Because if you move the upper jaw too far forward using lefor I, the face would begin to deform faster because you are NOT moving the whole maxilla (lefort I).
Instead, the lower jaw could be made bigger advances because in this case if you are moving the whole jaw (at least from the front view). Is this correct?
In other words, in theory, if a Le fort II (or even III) instead Le Fort I were performed, could bigger advances be made in the upper jaw (and therefore the lower jaw) without deforming the face?
Please don't shitpost, otherwise you will be blocked and reported.
Could you help with this, please?
@Golden Glass
@Sergio-OMS
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