Muslimcels GTFI , do you accept this hadith which claims only the Arabs & Quraish specifically can become Caliph in a Muslim empire

Raja Porus

Raja Porus

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The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "Authority of ruling will remain with Quraish, even if only two of them remained."

حَدَّثَنَا أَبُو الْوَلِيدِ، حَدَّثَنَا عَاصِمُ بْنُ مُحَمَّدٍ، قَالَ سَمِعْتُ أَبِي، عَنِ ابْنِ عُمَرَ ـ رضى الله عنهما ـ عَنِ النَّبِيِّ صلى الله عليه وسلم قَالَ ‏ "‏ لا يَزَالُ هَذَا الأَمْرُ فِي قُرَيْشٍ، مَا بَقِيَ مِنْهُمُ اثْنَانِ ‏"‏‏ .

‏ Reference : Sahih al-Bukhari 3501 In-book reference : Book 61, Hadith 11 USC-MSA web (English) reference : Vol. 4, Book 56, Hadith 705

I believe think this hadith is fake/forged & was misattributed to the Prophet by some Arab or Qureshi supremacist


The Quran contradicts this explicitly

Quran 49:13

O humanity! Indeed, We created you from a male and a female, and made you into peoples and tribes so that you may ˹get to˺ know one another. Surely the most noble of you in the sight of Allah is the most righteous among you. Allah is truly All-Knowing, All-Aware
 
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There's a lot of discussion about the qualifications necessary for a person to become khalifah in Islam. To briefly answer your questions from a Sunni perspective:

  1. Most scholars of our past did believe that the khalifah must come from the Quraish. There are a number of ahadith to support this view, amongst them the statement of Abu Bakr at the Saqifah after the death of the Prophet (saws). Imam an-Nawwawi goes so far as to state that ijma' exists that the khalifah must be from the Quraish. However, a number of scholars disputed that. Ibn Hajar al-Asqalani mentions a narration from Musnad Imam Ahmad where 'Umar (ra) on his deathbed stated that if Mu'adh ibn Jabal was alive, he would have appointed him as khalifah after him. Mu'adh ibn Jabal was an Ansari and thus it does not make sense for 'Umar (ra) to say that he would have made him khalifah if he believed that the caliphate was restricted to the Quraish. 'Umar (ra) was present at the Saqifah when Abu Bakr narrated the hadith about the ruler being from the Quraish so 'Umar clearly knew the hadith.
Ibn Khaldun has an interesting discussion of this in his Muqaddimah. He agrees that the khalifah should come from the Quraish but the explanation he gives is that during the time of the Prophet (saws), the Arabs would not have respected any leader who was not from Quraish. He mentions that scholars such as Abu Bakr al-Baqillani opined that since, in their era, the Quraish did not have this respect anymore, the requirement was no longer valid.

Also, I think there's no dispute that this requirement does not apply to someone who has already become a khalifah. In other words, if someone becomes an accepted khalifah and they are not from Quraish, this does not in any way invalidate their caliphate. The Ottomans were not descendants of Quraish and there is no doubt that it was a valid caliphate.

If you want to read more about this subject, I'd suggest Al-Mawardi's book Al-Ahkam as-Sultaniyyah which has been translated as The Laws of Islamic Governance and The Ordinances of Government (same book, different translators).

Article on the topic
 
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There's a lot of discussion about the qualifications necessary for a person to become khalifah in Islam. To briefly answer your questions from a Sunni perspective:

  1. Most scholars of our past did believe that the khalifah must come from the Quraish. There are a number of ahadith to support this view, amongst them the statement of Abu Bakr at the Saqifah after the death of the Prophet (saws). Imam an-Nawwawi goes so far as to state that ijma' exists that the khalifah must be from the Quraish. However, a number of scholars disputed that. Ibn Hajar al-Asqalani mentions a narration from Musnad Imam Ahmad where 'Umar (ra) on his deathbed stated that if Mu'adh ibn Jabal was alive, he would have appointed him as khalifah after him. Mu'adh ibn Jabal was an Ansari and thus it does not make sense for 'Umar (ra) to say that he would have made him khalifah if he believed that the caliphate was restricted to the Quraish. 'Umar (ra) was present at the Saqifah when Abu Bakr narrated the hadith about the ruler being from the Quraish so 'Umar clearly knew the hadith.
Ibn Khaldun has an interesting discussion of this in his Muqaddimah. He agrees that the khalifah should come from the Quraish but the explanation he gives is that during the time of the Prophet (saws), the Arabs would not have respected any leader who was not from Quraish. He mentions that scholars such as Abu Bakr al-Baqillani opined that since, in their era, the Quraish did not have this respect anymore, the requirement was no longer valid.

Also, I think there's no dispute that this requirement does not apply to someone who has already become a khalifah. In other words, if someone becomes an accepted khalifah and they are not from Quraish, this does not in any way invalidate their caliphate. The Ottomans were not descendants of Quraish and there is no doubt that it was a valid caliphate.

If you want to read more about this subject, I'd suggest Al-Mawardi's book Al-Ahkam as-Sultaniyyah which has been translated as The Laws of Islamic Governance and The Ordinances of Government (same book, different translators).

Article on the topic

Jfled cause its copy paste but this makes sense. The Quraish had a lot of respect & tribal authority amongst Arab back then. It made sense that they should rule over others.

The wording in the hadith "even if 2 of them remain" is obviously fake as it makes the authority of Quraish unconditional
 
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Without lies, Islam dies
 
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