banjojones
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Its confusing to me and historians are very vague about it and try to overlap Arabs/Turks who are NOT the same people. Arabs are Semites (similar to Mizrahi Jews in Israel) who originated from the Yemen area and have some degrees of black admixture (Hate to say. I mean look Yemen is VERY VERY close to Somalia. You have to be FOOLISH to deny that ZERO Sub Saharan DNA got in). On the other hand, Ottoman Turks orignated from (literally) Turkmenistan/parts of Mongolia. But conquered modern day Turkey (Anatolia)
How did some rough band of Asiatic hunters related to Ghengis Khan overtake settled agrarian Arab lands THOUSANDS OF MILES to the south and decide to make Anatolia their homeland rather than Mongolia/Turkmenistan? I heard a lot of Arab downfall was due to Arabs importing (whitish looking) Turkik (female sex) slaves and male soldiers from Turkmenistan/Mongolia. (Mamaluks). But the Arabs (stupidly) gave their slaves weapons/military training and they eventually overtook the Arab empires (Anatolia as well) and bred them out/intermarried. (sure Ottomans DID speak Arabic. But a Chinese person (technically the Turks WERE genetically similar to Chinese people) could learn Arabic/convert to Islam but STILL NOT be racially Arab etc). Seemed like a big racial/cultural change occurred.
Not to be a "we wuz kangz" type but LETS BE REAL. A LOT of modern Egyptians resemble ethnic Turks. They look NOTHING like the ancient Egyptians (ancient Egyptians were NOT "black" per se but they looked NOTHING like Modern Egyptians today. I do NOT want to get into a racial debate of weather ancient Egyptians were niggers or not . But it is FOOLISH to deny the Ottoman Turk genetic element of the MENA region. These people ruled the region for 600 years! They had to have mixed with the native population/changed the genetics/culture within that LONG time frame etc )
-please edumucate me my kebabcels
-Am I misunderstanding this?
How did some rough band of Asiatic hunters related to Ghengis Khan overtake settled agrarian Arab lands THOUSANDS OF MILES to the south and decide to make Anatolia their homeland rather than Mongolia/Turkmenistan? I heard a lot of Arab downfall was due to Arabs importing (whitish looking) Turkik (female sex) slaves and male soldiers from Turkmenistan/Mongolia. (Mamaluks). But the Arabs (stupidly) gave their slaves weapons/military training and they eventually overtook the Arab empires (Anatolia as well) and bred them out/intermarried. (sure Ottomans DID speak Arabic. But a Chinese person (technically the Turks WERE genetically similar to Chinese people) could learn Arabic/convert to Islam but STILL NOT be racially Arab etc). Seemed like a big racial/cultural change occurred.
Not to be a "we wuz kangz" type but LETS BE REAL. A LOT of modern Egyptians resemble ethnic Turks. They look NOTHING like the ancient Egyptians (ancient Egyptians were NOT "black" per se but they looked NOTHING like Modern Egyptians today. I do NOT want to get into a racial debate of weather ancient Egyptians were niggers or not . But it is FOOLISH to deny the Ottoman Turk genetic element of the MENA region. These people ruled the region for 600 years! They had to have mixed with the native population/changed the genetics/culture within that LONG time frame etc )
-please edumucate me my kebabcels
-Am I misunderstanding this?
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