C
Caesercel
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Lets start with two axioms here
Axiom 1: Looks are objective and not easily bogged down by cultural phenomena. There are objective standards for what make a beautiful face(forward growth etc)
Axiom 2: Whites are objectively the most attractive race by these standards
If we take these axioms to their logical conclusion then Blacks cannot be top tier attractive. Since they are the farthest thing from white beauty standards.
If black have as high smv as posited then either of the above axioms would have to be rendered false. This leads to two options.
Conclusion 1 : Axiom 1 is false.
There are no objective standards of male attractiveness. And if there are such standards they are weakly linked to actual SMV. Further high smv for blacks could be a direct result of their positive potrayal in media(bbc etc) compares to arabs or curries. This would also mean that white attractiveness too comes from media being dominated by white beauty standards and has no objective standing. ( this is a subset of whites deriving attractiveness from colonial legacy theory)
Conclusion 2 : Axiom 2 is false.
Whites are simply not the most objectively attractive race. This would mean Blacks ARE the most attractive since whites lose their top spot. Cuz blacks simply cannot stay at the 2nd or 3rd spot. Logic dictates that blacks can either be at the bottom or take the very top spot. Its like a bubble sort algorithm where blacks would automatically bubble up to the top spot if they are high enough on the ranking.
As you can see, neither conclusions bode well for the "whites are objectively most attractive" theory.
Of course, all this runs on the assumption that blacks are more attractive than other mentioned races. We could say that this assumption itself is false.
Axiom 1: Looks are objective and not easily bogged down by cultural phenomena. There are objective standards for what make a beautiful face(forward growth etc)
Axiom 2: Whites are objectively the most attractive race by these standards
If we take these axioms to their logical conclusion then Blacks cannot be top tier attractive. Since they are the farthest thing from white beauty standards.
If black have as high smv as posited then either of the above axioms would have to be rendered false. This leads to two options.
Conclusion 1 : Axiom 1 is false.
There are no objective standards of male attractiveness. And if there are such standards they are weakly linked to actual SMV. Further high smv for blacks could be a direct result of their positive potrayal in media(bbc etc) compares to arabs or curries. This would also mean that white attractiveness too comes from media being dominated by white beauty standards and has no objective standing. ( this is a subset of whites deriving attractiveness from colonial legacy theory)
Conclusion 2 : Axiom 2 is false.
Whites are simply not the most objectively attractive race. This would mean Blacks ARE the most attractive since whites lose their top spot. Cuz blacks simply cannot stay at the 2nd or 3rd spot. Logic dictates that blacks can either be at the bottom or take the very top spot. Its like a bubble sort algorithm where blacks would automatically bubble up to the top spot if they are high enough on the ranking.
As you can see, neither conclusions bode well for the "whites are objectively most attractive" theory.
Of course, all this runs on the assumption that blacks are more attractive than other mentioned races. We could say that this assumption itself is false.