If your high iq figure out answer to this question

[JeanneDArcAlter]

Assume x and y
X is the presence of something y is the absence of something
Why is infinite x equal to infinite y?

 

[JeanneDArcAlter]

Assume x and y
X is the presence of something y is the absence of something
Why is infinite x equal to infinite y?

Bump

 

[Deleted member 80562]

Because if infinite exists then there has to be infinite of everything, which includes infinite of nothing

 

[JeanneDArcAlter]

Because if infinite exists then there has to be infinite of everything, which includes infinite of nothing

Err

 

[Bugmaxxed]

dnr

 

[Deleted member 86409]

Assume x and y
X is the presence of something y is the absence of something
Why is infinite x equal to infinite y?

equivalence

 

[JeanneDArcAlter]

equivalence

 

[imontheloose]

i mean, look at natural nums, you have even and odd. both infinite sets and have the same cardinality, you can show this using a simple bijection like 1-2, 3-4, 5-6, a simple correspondence of n and n+1 shows a perfect 1 to 1 relationship between both infinite sets.

pretty much, you can still have absence and presence in your case being infinite in a way that they have the same cardinality

 

[Deleted member 86409]

View attachment 3443327

Shalom officer please kill all goyim even the highest of the highest of the highest iq of the goyim

 

[JeanneDArcAlter]

i mean, look at natural nums, you have even and odd. both infinite sets and have the same cardinality, you can show this using a simple bijection like 1-2, 3-4, 5-6, a simple correspondence of n and n+1 shows a perfect 1 to 1 relationship between both infinite sets.

pretty much, you can still have absence and presence in your case being infinite in a way that they have the same cardinality

Tales

 

[Deleted member 86409]

This is me compared to you btw

Tales

 

[JeanneDArcAlter]

i mean, look at natural nums, you have even and odd. both infinite sets and have the same cardinality, you can show this using a simple bijection like 1-2, 3-4, 5-6, a simple correspondence of n and n+1 shows a perfect 1 to 1 relationship between both infinite sets.

pretty much, you can still have absence and presence in your case being infinite in a way that they have the same cardinality

But the absence is not negative? It is n and n-n

 

[JeanneDArcAlter]

This is me compared to you btw
View attachment 3443328

On opposite day

 

[Deleted member 86409]

On opposite day

 

[JeanneDArcAlter]

View attachment 3443332

Im certified midwit award

 

[imontheloose]

But the absence is not negative? It is n and n-n

its just an analogy, absence isnt a mathematical set, but using the same reasoning you can just say that as long as they have the same cardinality they can both be infinite sets

 

[JeanneDArcAlter]

Im certified midwit award

Got a sub120 iq test result award

its just an analogy, absence isnt a mathematical set, but using the same reasoning you can just say that as long as they have the same cardinality they can both be infinite sets

Ah yes obviously the amount of numbers in each is the same but i am asking whether the sum of each is equal
I interpreted cardinality at first as having the same sums since even and odd sets have the same sums

 

[imontheloose]

Ah yes obviously the amount of numbers in each is the same but i am asking whether the sum of each is equal

when people say "there are just as many" elements in two distinct infinite sets, they are talking about cardinality not sums. if you sum all +ve int you get +inf, you get -inf if you do so for all -ve int. clearly they arent the same so those sums are not equal in the usual sense

 

[JeanneDArcAlter]

when people say "there are just as many" elements in two distinct infinite sets, they are talking about cardinality not sums. if you sum all +ve int you get +inf, you get -inf if you do so for all -ve int. clearly they arent the same so those sums are not equal in the usual sense

Yes now i know what cardinality means before tbis reply
I didnt know the definition before

 

[JeanneDArcAlter]

when people say "there are just as many" elements in two distinct infinite sets, they are talking about cardinality not sums. if you sum all +ve int you get +inf, you get -inf if you do so for all -ve int. clearly they arent the same so those sums are not equal in the usual sense

And also it was retarded for me to think infinite of negatives would be the same sum as infinite of positives

 

[JeanneDArcAlter]

And also it was retarded for me to think infinite of negatives would be the same sum as infinite of positives

I feel incredibly midwittish as of recently i just completely mindlessly make easy mistakes

 

[JeanneDArcAlter]

I feel incredibly midwittish as of recently i just completely mindlessly make easy mistakes

Spoiler: Answer

Infinity divided by 0 is infinity
So an infinite sums of 0 is equal to infinity
So its equal to an infinite sum of something

 

[JeanneDArcAlter]

Spoiler: Answer

Infinity divided by 0 is infinity
So an infinite sums of 0 is equal to infinity
So its equal to an infinite sum of something

Ofc this isnt right since infinities can be larger than others but ignoring that