chaddyboi66
E V I S C E M O G G E R
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I often at times find some Orthobros or the "based" crowd talking about retaking Constantinople while also acknowledging the validity of the right of conquest when it comes to other peoples like in America, Rhodesia, Ireland etc. under the very same breath.
And while I'd honestly prefer this outcome over the current situation in finally being able to have an Orthodox Constantinople again, it also ultimately the begs the question of whether or not the right of conquest is any different for the Turks in this case?
I must admit that while I do believe in the validity in the right of conquest I don't believe in the validity of conquest via subversion or through deception like with what happened to the Palestinians or what's currently happening with the (((foreign))) invasion of Europe.
I also believe that it's every people's right and ultimate duty to resist any foreign conquerors/occupiers in order protect their folk and reclaim their homeland, as well as when it also comes to removing foreign invaders from said homeland.
However, I don't see how one can support right of conquest for a few but then complain when those they don't like conquer or even they are conquered themselves- right of conquest ought to either all be just or none of it is.
That line of though doesn't sit right with me because it just seems very hypocritical and as though it were something akin to moral relativism which is born of depravity and ultimately secularism.
With that being said however-
Did they not conquer it and do they not also have a claim to it via the right of conquest as a result?
Why or how is the conquest of other peoples like with what happened during Western expansion and ultimately colonialism any different and/pr justified under the right of conquest but the Turkish/Ottoman conquest Constantinople not under the very same premise?
[ISPOILER] [/ISPOILER]
And while I'd honestly prefer this outcome over the current situation in finally being able to have an Orthodox Constantinople again, it also ultimately the begs the question of whether or not the right of conquest is any different for the Turks in this case?
I must admit that while I do believe in the validity in the right of conquest I don't believe in the validity of conquest via subversion or through deception like with what happened to the Palestinians or what's currently happening with the (((foreign))) invasion of Europe.
I also believe that it's every people's right and ultimate duty to resist any foreign conquerors/occupiers in order protect their folk and reclaim their homeland, as well as when it also comes to removing foreign invaders from said homeland.
However, I don't see how one can support right of conquest for a few but then complain when those they don't like conquer or even they are conquered themselves- right of conquest ought to either all be just or none of it is.
That line of though doesn't sit right with me because it just seems very hypocritical and as though it were something akin to moral relativism which is born of depravity and ultimately secularism.
With that being said however-
Did they not conquer it and do they not also have a claim to it via the right of conquest as a result?
Why or how is the conquest of other peoples like with what happened during Western expansion and ultimately colonialism any different and/pr justified under the right of conquest but the Turkish/Ottoman conquest Constantinople not under the very same premise?
[ISPOILER] [/ISPOILER]